Human Anatomy 6th Edition by Kenneth Saladin – Test Bank

Human Anatomy 6th Edition by Kenneth Saladin – Test Bank

Human Anatomy, 6e (Saladin)
Chapter 7 The Skeletal System II: Axial Skeleton

1) All the bones below belong to the axial skeleton, except the ________, which belongs to the appendicular skeleton.
A) frontal bone
B) mandible
C) scapula
D) thoracic vertebra
E) stapes

2) Which of the following is/are not part of the axial skeleton?
A) The sternum
B) The parietal bone
C) The clavicles
D) The vertebrae
E) The ribs

3) The two major divisions of the skeleton are axial and ________.

4) What is the average number of bones in the adult skeleton?
A) 156
B) 206
C) 283
D) 451

5) A newborn baby typically has about ________ bones whereas a typical adult has ________ bones.
A) 270; 206
B) 254; 206
C) 228; 206
D) 206; 228
E) 206; 254

6) There are more bones in the skeleton of an infant compared to an adult.

7) Which of the following account for why the number of bones in the adult skeleton may vary. Select all that apply.
A) There is a variable presence of sesamoid bones.
B) Some bones may disappear in response to mechanical stress.
C) There is a variable number of sutural bones.
D) There are fontanelles in the skull of an infant.

8) When an infant is born, which bone is still in two pieces?
A) Occipital bone
B) Temporal bone
C) Ethmoid bone
D) Zygomatic bone
E) Frontal bone

9) Bones that form within tendons in response to stress are called ________ bones.
A) sutural
B) patellar
C) sesamoid

10) Why does an adult not have as many bones as a child?
A) Osteoporosis leads to bone loss with age.
B) Some separate bones gradually fuse with age.
C) Many bones are replaced by cartilage with age.
D) Bones are reabsorbed with age.
E) Osteoclast activity overcomes osteoblast activity with age.

11) What is a sesamoid bone?
A) A bone growing within some cartilages in response to pressure
B) A bone that forms within some tendons in response to stress
C) A bone that forms in the cranium in response to trauma
D) A bone made of hyaline cartilage
E) A bone made of dense regular connective tissue

12) Just by looking at the name, the superior costal facet is probably which of the following?
A) A smooth articulating surface
B) A large projection of bone
C) A rough surface
D) A small pit

13) Which of the following best describes a condyle?
A) A rounded knob
B) A smooth flat surface
C) A narrow ridge
D) A shallow depression

14) Any bony prominence is called a/an ________.
A) epicondyle
B) tubercle
C) fossa
D) head
E) process

15) Which of the following is not a characteristic of cranial bones?
A) They develop from pharyngeal arches.
B) They are in contact with meninges.
C) They may be paired or unpaired.
D) They form the cranial fossae.
E) They protect the brain.

16) Which of the following is not a facial bone?
A) The palatine bone
B) The lacrimal bone
C) The ethmoid bone
D) The vomer
E) The maxilla

17) Which of the following are not considered facial bones?
A) Parietal bones
B) Maxillae
C) Lacrimal bones
D) Nasal bones
E) Palatine bones

18) Which of the following is also known as the viscerocranium because it develops from pharyngeal arches?
A) The facial skeleton
B) The calvaria
C) The base of the skull
D) The flat bones of the skull
E) The occipital and temporal bones

19) Which feature enables mammals to breathe and chew at the same time?
A) Large nasal conchae
B) The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
C) The shape of the pterygoid process
D) A hard palate that separates the oral and nasal cavities
E) The presence of a hyoid bone

20) The adult skull contains two of which bone?
A) Sphenoid
B) Occipital
C) Frontal
D) Parietal
E) Ethmoid

21) Which of the following would normally be impossible to palpate on a living person?
A) The superior nuchal line
B) The occipital condyles
C) The zygomatic arch
D) The mastoid process
E) The supraorbital ridge

22) The mastoid process cannot be palpated on a living person.

23) The foramen ovale is found in which bone?
A) The ethmoid
B) The sphenoid
C) The maxilla
D) The occipital
E) The temporal

24) The internal and external acoustic meatuses are openings in which bone?
A) The temporal bone
B) The maxilla
C) The parietal bone
D) The frontal bone
E) The sphenoid bone

25) In an intact cadaver, what structure(s) would be nestled into and protected by the sella turcica?
A) The pterygoid muscles
B) The pituitary gland
C) The pineal gland
D) The olfactory bulbs
E) The optic nerves

26) Where does the atlas articulate with the skull?
A) The foramen magnum
B) The temporomandibular joint
C) The styloid process
D) The occipital condyles
E) The pterygoid process

27) Which bone has a mental protuberance?
A) The frontal bone
B) The ethmoid
C) The temporal bone
D) The mandible
E) The zygomatic bone

28) What attaches to the crista galli?
A) Olfactory bulbs
B) Cranial nerves
C) Meninges
D) Blood vessels
E) Chewing muscles

29) Which bone houses the middle and inner ear?
A) Sphenoid
B) Temporal
C) Occipital
D) Ethmoid
E) Zygomatic

30) The styloid process, mastoid process, and zygomatic process are parts of which bone?
A) The zygomatic bone
B) The occipital bone
C) The frontal bone
D) The maxilla
E) The temporal bone

31) Which bone forms the back of your head?
A) The temporal bone
B) The occipital bone
C) The ethmoid bone
D) The sphenoid bone
E) The parietal bone

32) The olfactory nerves may be damaged if the ________ bone is fractured.
A) frontal
B) ethmoid
C) sphenoid
D) temporal
E) occipital

33) The vestibulocochlear nerve passes through which of the following openings?
A) External acoustic meatus
B) Internal acoustic meatus
C) Foramen ovale
D) Foramen rotundum
E) Carotid canal

34) Eye movement is controlled by nerves that pass through which opening(s)?
A) The orbital fissures
B) The optic foramen
C) The infraorbital foramen
D) The supraorbital notches
E) The incisive foramen

35) Which bones form the nasal septum?
A) Vomer and maxilla
B) Palatine and sphenoid
C) Ethmoid and inferior nasal conchae
D) Sphenoid and vomer
E) Ethmoid and vomer

36) Each mandibular condyle articulates with a mandibular ________ of the temporal bone.

37) Anosomia may result if the ________ bone is injured by a sharp blow to the nose.

38) The ________ foramen between the temporal and occipital bones provides a passageway for three cranial nerves and drainage of blood from the brain.

39) The ________ gland is surrounded by the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.

40) The zygomatic process is located on the ________ bone.

41) The hole that permits passage of the spinal cord through the occipital bone is the foramen ________.

42) The small bone that forms the inferior part of the nasal septum is the ________.

43) The ________ of the ethmoid bone forms the anterior point of attachment for the meninges in the skull.

44) The part of the ethmoid bone riddled with holes that provides passage for the olfactory nerves is the ________ plate.

45) The tooth sockets are separated by ________ processes.

46) When you touch your cheek bone, you are palpating your ________ bone.

47) The optic canal is part of the sphenoid bone.

48) All of the following are found on the temporal bone except the ________.
A) zygomatic process
B) mastoid process
C) external acoustic meatus
D) sella turcica
E) mandibular fossa

49) Which of the following bones is a single unpaired bone?
A) Ethmoid
B) Parietal
C) Maxilla
D) Zygomatic
E) Palatine

50) Which of the following bones forms the bulk of the hard palate?
A) Nasal bone
B) Mandible
C) Ethmoid bone
D) Maxilla
E) Lacrimal bone

51) Which of the following articulates with the vertebral column?
A) Mandibular fossa
B) Mastoid process
C) Occipital condyle
D) Foramen magnum
E) Zygomatic arch

52) Which bone does not contribute to the formation of the eye orbit?
A) The sphenoid bone
B) The frontal bone
C) The zygomatic bone
D) The ethmoid bone
E) The temporal bone

53) Which of the following is not a paranasal sinus?
A) Sphenoidal
B) Temporal
C) Ethmoidal
D) Maxillary
E) Frontal

54) Sinuses are absent from which bone?
A) Sphenoid
B) Frontal
C) Temporal
D) Maxilla
E) Ethmoid

55) Which of the following bones does not contribute to the wall of the orbit?
A) Sphenoid
B) Frontal
C) Maxillary
D) Zygomatic
E) Nasal

56) Healthy paranasal sinuses are filled with mucus.

57) What does the lambdoid suture separate the parietal bones from?
A) The temporal bone
B) Each other
C) The occipital bone
D) The frontal bone
E) The sphenoid bone

58) What is the function of fontanelles?
A) They enable one to see a baby’s heartbeat.
B) They provide stability as the baby passes through the birth canal.
C) They enable the brain to grow during infancy and childhood.
D) They provide space for blood vessels to enter the brain.
E) They make an infant more vulnerable so that it requires care from adults.

59) Which of the following separates the two parietal bones?
A) The coronal suture
B) The parietal suture
C) The lambdoidal suture
D) The sigmoid suture
E) The sagittal suture

60) The ________ suture is found between the occipital and parietal bones.

61) The ________ suture is between the frontal and parietal bones.

62) The ________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone.
A) coronal
B) squamous
C) lambdoid
D) sagittal
E) frontal

63) Which bone is a part of the skull and not just associated with it?
A) Incus
B) Malleus
C) Hyoid
D) Stapes
E) Vomer

64) A fractured ________ may be evidence of death by strangulation.
A) mandible
B) styloid process
C) mastoid process
D) vomer
E) hyoid bone

65) The ________ is the middle auditory ossicle.

66) What are the three auditory ossicles?
A) The malleus, incus, and stapes
B) The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae
C) The hyoid, mandible, and maxilla
D) The temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones

67) The ________ is a U-shaped bone that sits above the larynx yet does not articulate with any other bone.
A) hyoid bone
B) mandible
C) maxilla
D) zygomatic bone

68) Which of the following is an adaptation to bipedal locomotion?
A) A foramen magnum oriented more posteriorly relative to quadrupeds
B) An S-shaped spine
C) A funnel-shaped thorax
D) A C-shaped spine
E) A triangular nasal aperture

69) Articular surfaces called occipital ________ lie on either side of the foramen magnum and facilitate nodding of the head.

70) Which of the following helped adapt the human skull for bipedalism compared with an ape’s skull?
A) The foramen magnum is more posterior.
B) The foramen magnum is more superior.
C) The face is flatter.
D) There is more weight anterior to the occipital condyles.

71) Which part of a vertebra bears the most weight?
A) The transverse process
B) The neural arch
C) The centrum
D) The lamina
E) The pedicle

72) Through what opening does the spinal cord pass?
A) Vertebral foramen
B) Vertebral arch
C) Transverse foramen
D) Intervertebral foramen
E) Central canal

73) What is an abnormal lateral curve of the spine called?
A) Spina bifida
B) Kyphosis
C) Lordosis
D) Ankylosing spondylitis
E) Scoliosis

74) The ________ is the weight bearing portion of the vertebra.

75) From superior to inferior, how many individual vertebrae are there of each type?
A) 12; 7; 5; 5; 4
B) 12; 5; 5; 7; 4
C) 7; 5; 5; 12; 4
D) 7; 12; 5; 5; 4
E) 7; 5; 5; 4; 12

76) Which intervertebral disc is largest?
A) The one between C2 and C3
B) The one between C7 and T1
C) The one between T4 and T5
D) The one between T12 and L1
E) The one between L4 and L5

77) What is the most common site of herniated discs?
A) Between the atlas and the axis
B) The thoracic region
C) Between T12 and L1
D) Between L4 and L5 or L5 and S1
E) The coccyx

78) The shape of an intervertebral disc most closely matches which part of the vertebra?
A) Body
B) Spinous process
C) Transverse process
D) Lamina
E) Costal facet

79) Which of the following is not present in cervical vertebrae?
A) Transverse process
B) Transverse foramen
C) Vertebral foramen
D) Bifid spinous process
E) Costal facet

80) Which of the following is not true of a thoracic vertebra?
A) The body has facets as points of articulation for ribs.
B) It usually has a facet at the end of each transverse process for attachment of a rib.
C) The body is more massive than those of cervical vertebrae but less than those of lumbar vertebrae.
D) The spinous process is pointed and angled sharply downward.
E) It has a pair of transverse foramina.

81) What is the dens?
A) A rounded prominence on the vertebra prominens
B) A tooth-like process on the axis
C) A projection on the transverse process of cervical vertebrae
D) A concavity unique to C1
E) A bony protrusion inferior to the costal facets

82) Which vertebrae have transverse foramina?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Pelvic
E) Coccygeal

83) Where are costal facets found?
A) On thoracic vertebrae
B) On cervical vertebrae
C) On vertebrochondral ribs
D) On the sternum
E) On the scapula

84) Nodding the head is permitted by a joint between which two bones?
A) Atlas and axis
B) Axis and C3
C) Atlas and occipital bone
D) C3 and C4
E) Sternum and clavicle

85) Which of the following is only found on the axis vertebra?
A) Transverse foramen
B) Spinous process
C) Dens (odontoid process)
D) Vertebral arch
E) Superior articular facet

86) The spinous process has a bifid tip in most ________ vertebrae.
A) cervical
B) thoracic
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) coccygeal

87) Which of the following do not (does not) begin to develop until a child begins to walk?
A) The lumbar vertebrae
B) The lumbar curvature
C) The cervical curvature
D) The fibula
E) The demifacets

88) What are the “true” ribs numbered?
A) Ribs 3−5
B) Ribs 8−10
C) Ribs 11−12
D) Ribs 1−7

89) What forms the superior portion of the sternum?
A) Xiphoid process
B) Gladiolus
C) Manubrium
D) Body
E) Clavicle

90) How many pairs of ribs are there?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 12
E) 14

91) The inferior portion of the sternum is the ________ process.

92) The superior portion of the sternum is the ________.

93) All ribs articulate with the sternum.

94) Men have one rib fewer than women.

95) Rib 7 is a ________ rib.
A) true
B) floating
C) false
D) pelvic
E) cartilaginous

96) Costal cartilages connect which of the following?
A) The clavicles with the sternum
B) The true ribs with the scapula
C) The floating ribs with xiphoid process
D) The false ribs with the viscera and peritoneum
E) The ribs with the sternum

97) Which bones develop from pharyngeal arches?
A) The sphenoid and ethmoid
B) Bones of the base of the cranium
C) Most of the bones of the calvarium
D) The facial bones
E) The temporal and occipital

98) Which structures separate the cranial bones at birth and allow for limited movement of the bones relative to one another?
A) Sutural bones
B) Sesamoid bones
C) Cartilaginous plates
D) Sutures
E) Fontanelles

99) Which embryological structure(s) give(s) rise to the vertebral bodies?
A) Anulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus
B) Mesenchyme surrounding the neural tube
C) Mesenchyme and sclerotomes
D) The neural tube
E) Longitudinal strips of condensed mesenchyme

100) What is the “soft spot” that can be felt on the top of a baby’s head?
A) The sagittal suture
B) The anterior fontanelle
C) The posterior fontanelle
D) The mastoid fontanelle
E) The sphenoid fontanelle

101) Which of the following structures is derived from the notochord?
A) The ribs
B) The anulus fibrosus
C) The vertebral arch
D) The nucleus pulposus
E) The vertebral foramen

102) The line of fusion between the two halves of the mandible is the ________ symphysis.

103) Fontanelles are ________ in an infant.
A) spaces between the unfused cranial bones
B) cartilages covering cranial bones
C) fibrous connective tissues lining the cranial cavity
D) fibrous connective tissues lining the orbits
E) fibrous connective tissues lining paranasal sinuses

104) Which of the following are common disorders of the axial skeleton? Select all that apply.
A) Cleft palate
B) Spondylosis
C) Medial epicondylitis
D) Spinal stenosis
E) Gouty arthritis

105) Why is early closure of the fontanelles sometimes associated with mental retardation?
A) The cranial nerves are compressed.
B) The spinal cord does not develop properly.
C) The brain cannot grow normally.
D) The meninges do not attach properly to the skull.
E) The skull is asymmetrical.